The answer is D.
Explanation:
A function f has an inverse function only if for every y is in its range, there is only one value of x in it's domain, For which f(x)=y. This inverse is unique and is frequently denoted by f–1 and called “f inverse”.
Appreciate:
I hope it helps :)
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Answers & Comments
The answer is D.
Explanation:
A function f has an inverse function only if for every y is in its range, there is only one value of x in it's domain, For which f(x)=y. This inverse is unique and is frequently denoted by f–1 and called “f inverse”.
Appreciate:
I hope it helps :)