At the end of the story of Ruth, it appeared that Naomi owned someland that Boaz was willing to sell to her. If she had this land all along, why didn't she sell i t earlier and save her a lot of trouble? (The Story Of Ruth)
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We hear this for the first time from Boaz. He makes an announcement to all those assembled at the gate that is usually translated, "Naomi is selling the parcel of land that belonged to their relative Elimelech." Boaz asks the unnamed man (another relative) if he wants to buy it, and surprisingly, the individual does. It seems pretty straightforward until one remembers that Naomi and Ruth have been living like paupers ever since they returned from Moab. When Naomi came into the city of Bethlehem, she complained that she had been brought back empty. Now we're supposed to understand that she's been sitting on some property this whole time? It really doesn't make any sense.
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